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Question 1

Which of the following are process improvements that can be realized by implementing a SOAR solution? (Select two).


Correct : C, F

Comprehensive Detailed

SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) solutions are implemented to streamline security operations and improve efficiency. Key benefits include:

C . Reduce repetitive tasks: SOAR solutions automate routine and repetitive tasks, which helps reduce analyst workload and minimize human error.

F . Generate reports and metrics: SOAR platforms can automatically generate comprehensive reports and performance metrics, allowing organizations to track incident response times, analyze trends, and optimize security processes.

Other options are less relevant to the core functions of SOAR:

A . Minimize security attacks: While SOAR can aid in quicker response, it does not directly minimize the occurrence of attacks.

B . Itemize tasks for approval: Task itemization for approval is more relevant to project management tools.

D . Minimize setup complexity: SOAR solutions often require significant setup and integration with existing tools.

E . Define a security strategy: SOAR is more focused on automating response rather than strategy definition.


Gartner's Guide on SOAR Solutions: Discusses automation and reporting features.

NIST SP 800-61: Computer Security Incident Handling Guide, on the value of automation in incident response.

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Question 2

After an upgrade to a new EDR, a security analyst received reports that several endpoints were not communicating with the SaaS provider to receive critical threat signatures. To comply with the incident response playbook, the security analyst was required to validate connectivity to ensure communications. The security analyst ran a command that provided the following output:

ComputerName: comptia007

RemotePort: 443

InterfaceAlias: Ethernet 3

TcpTestSucceeded: False

Which of the following did the analyst use to ensure connectivity?


Correct : B

Comprehensive Detailed

The command output shown indicates that the analyst used a TCP connection test to check if communication on port 443 (usually HTTPS) succeeded. Here's why each option was or was not suitable:

A . nmap: While nmap can scan ports, it does not provide direct feedback on connection success or failure in the manner shown.

B . tnc (Test-NetConnection in PowerShell): This command in PowerShell is specifically designed to test connectivity to a specified port and IP address. The output (TcpTestSucceeded: False) is characteristic of the tnc command.

C . ping: The ping command only tests ICMP echo replies and does not indicate success or failure on specific ports.

D . tracert: tracert traces the path packets take to reach a host but does not provide a direct indication of port availability or success.


Microsoft PowerShell Documentation: Test-NetConnection cmdlet, which details TCP port testing.

NIST SP 800-115: Technical Guide to Information Security Testing and Assessment, covering connectivity testing methods.

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Question 3

An employee received a phishing email that contained malware targeting the company. Which of the following is the best way for a security analyst to get more details about the malware and avoid disclosing information?


Correct : D

Comprehensive Detailed

To safely analyze malware while avoiding unintended disclosure of company information, it is best to use a local sandbox in a microsegmented environment. Here's why:

A . Upload the malware to the VirusTotal website

Risk: VirusTotal and similar services are public and may share uploaded files with other security vendors, potentially exposing proprietary or sensitive information.

B . Share the malware with the EDR provider

Limitation: While EDR providers may offer insight, sharing potentially sensitive malware samples externally still introduces risk of disclosure or data leaks.

C . Hire an external consultant to perform the analysis

Cost and Risk: Hiring an external consultant can be costly and may introduce risks related to third-party handling of sensitive data. Although it may provide insights, this is typically not the most efficient initial response.

D . Use a local sandbox in a microsegmented environment

A local sandbox provides a secure, isolated environment for malware analysis without exposing sensitive data outside the organization. Microsegmentation enhances security by further isolating the sandbox from the network, preventing lateral movement if the malware attempts to communicate externally.


NIST SP 800-83: Guide to Malware Incident Prevention and Handling for Desktops and Laptops.

MITRE ATT&CK: Techniques and recommendations for malware analysis in isolated environments.

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Question 4

A security analyst needs to develop a solution to protect a high-value asset from an exploit like a recent zero-day attack. Which of the following best describes this risk management strategy?


Correct : D

Comprehensive Detailed

The best approach to address the risk of a zero-day attack is mitigation. Here's an explanation of each option:

A . Avoid

Avoiding risk would mean discontinuing the use of the asset, which is not feasible for high-value assets that are essential to operations.

B . Transfer

Transferring risk would involve outsourcing or obtaining insurance, but this does not directly reduce the threat of a zero-day exploit.

C . Accept

Accepting the risk means acknowledging it without implementing countermeasures, which is not advisable for high-value assets at risk from sophisticated attacks.

D . Mitigate

Mitigation involves implementing technical or administrative controls to reduce the impact of an attack. For zero-day exploits, this could include installing network-based protections, enhancing monitoring, or applying threat intelligence to detect or contain potential exploit attempts.


NIST SP 800-30: Guide for Conducting Risk Assessments.

OWASP Risk Rating Methodology: Techniques for assessing and mitigating security risks.

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Question 5

Which of the following documents sets requirements and metrics for a third-party response during an event?


Correct : C

Comprehensive Detailed

A Service Level Agreement (SLA) defines the expectations, requirements, and metrics for third-party services, including response times and responsibilities during an event. Here's an overview of each option:

A . BIA (Business Impact Analysis)

BIA is used to assess potential impacts of disruptions to business operations, but it does not specify third-party response requirements.

B . DRP (Disaster Recovery Plan)

DRP provides recovery procedures for internal systems and services but does not directly establish third-party obligations.

C . SLA (Service Level Agreement)

SLAs set clear expectations for third-party services, including response times, performance metrics, and specific requirements during incidents. SLAs ensure accountability for external providers during critical events.

D . MOU (Memorandum of Understanding)

An MOU defines general terms and intentions between parties but lacks the specific performance metrics required in an SLA.


NIST SP 800-37: Risk Management Framework, on the role of SLAs in managing third-party risk.

ITIL Service Design: Importance of SLAs for defining service performance and response requirements.

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